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Exam Code: MB2-703

Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Customization and Configuration

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Exam Code: 98-365

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Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Customization and Configuration

• Published: January 24, 2014
• Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Simplified Chinese, Spanish
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
• Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Specialist

Create and customize solutions (10?15%)

Customize entities and entity relationships (10?15%)

Customize fields (10?15%)

Manage forms (10?15%)

Manage views (10?15%)

Create and customize charts and dashboards (10?15%)

Manage security (10?15%)

Manage business processes and rules (10?15%)

Instructor-led training

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for individuals who plan to customize and configure Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013. This audience typically includes implementation consultants.

It is recommended that candidates have a general working knowledge of the implementation and use of Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 features and functionality.

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MB6-702 Exam PDF, 70-494 Free download, 70-346 Real Exams

Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 Financials

• Published: December 23, 2014
• Languages: English
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft Dynamics AX
• Credit toward certification: Specialist

Configure Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 (25–30%)

Manage Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 (25–30%)

Define and manage budgets (15–20%)???

Configure and manage Fixed Assets (20–25%)

Books

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for individuals on the implementation team who are responsible for administrating or using the Fixed Assets and Financial Management modules in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3. This audience typically includes individuals who are tasked with assessing a customer’s business needs and advising them on the use, configuration, and customization of the application.

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Exam Code: MB6-702

Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 Financials

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Exam Code: 70-494

Exam Name: Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications

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Exam Code: 70-346

Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements

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Exam Code: 70-462

Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases

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Exam Code: 70-483

Exam Name: Programming in C#

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Exam Code: 70-411

Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012

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試験 70-411:
Windows Server 2012 の管理

試験内容
次のリストは、この試験の対象となる領域を示しています。
 グループ ポリシー インフラストラクチャの実装
ユーザー アカウントとサービス アカウントの管理
Active Directory ドメイン サービスの保守
DNS の構成およびトラブルシューティング
リモート アクセスの構成およびトラブルシューティング
ネットワーク ポリシー サーバーの役割のインストール、構成、およびトラブルシューティング
ファイル サービスの最適化
ファイル システムのセキュリティの強化
更新プログラム管理の実装

受験対象者のプロファイル
この試験は、Windows Server 2012 オペレーティング システムに関する知識と経験を持つ情報技術 (IT) プロフェッショナルで、Windows Server 2012 のインフラストラクチャの管理に必要なスキルと知識の評価を受けようとしている方を対象としています。
この試験は、3 つの試験から成る試験シリーズのうち 2 番目の試験です。このシリーズでは、エンタープライズ環境内の Windows Server 2012 インフラストラクチャの管理に必要なスキルと知識を評価します。この試験では、ユーザーとグループの管理、ネットワーク アクセス、データ セキュリティなど、Windows Server 2012 インフラストラクチャの保守に必要な管理タスクを評価します。この試験と他の 2 試験では、全体として、Windows Server 2012 環境におけるサービスとインフラストラクチャの実装、管理、保守、および準備に必要なスキルと知識を評価します。

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Exam Code: JN0-633

Exam Name: Security, Professional (JNCIP-SEC) Exam

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
{primarynode0}[edit security idp idp-policy test-ips-policy]
user@host# show
rulebase-ips {
rule r1 {
match {
source-address any;
attacks {
predefined-attack-groups "HTTP - All";
}
}
then {
action {
drop-packet;
}
}
terminal;
}
rule r2 {
match {
source-address 172.16.0.0/12;
attacks {
predefined-attack-groups "FTP - All";
}
then {
action {
no-action;
}
}
}
rule r3 {
match {
source-address 172.16.0.0/12;
attacks {
predefined-attack-groups "TELNET - All";
}
}
then {
action {
no-action;
} } } rule r4 { match { source-address any; attacks { predefined-attack-groups "FTP - All"; } } then {
action { drop-packet; } } } }
A user with IP address 172.301.100 initiates an FTP session to a host with IP address
10.100.1.50 through an SRX Series device and is subject to the IPS policy shown in the exhibit.
If the user tries to execute thecd ~rootcommand, which statement is correct?
A. The FTP command will be denied with the offending packet dropped and the session will be closed
by the SRX device.
B. The FTP command will be denied with the offending packet dropped and the rest of the FTP
session will be inspected by the IPS policy.
C. The FTP command will be allowed to execute and the rest of the FTP session will be ignored by the
IPS policy.
D. The FTP command will be allowed to execute but any other attacks executed during the session
will be inspected.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which action will allow an administrator to connect in band to an SRX Series device in
transparent mode over SSH?
A. Use a VLAN interface.
B. Use the loopback interface.
C. Use a logical interface.
D. Use an irb interface.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are three techniques to mark DSCP values on an SRX Series device? (Choose three.)
A. IDP attack action-based DSCP rewriters
B. 802.11Q
C. VLAN rewrite
D. ALG-based DSCP rewriters
E. Layer 7 application-based DSCP rewriters.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Your company provides managed services for two customers. Each customer has been
segregated within its own routing instance on your SRX device. Customer A and customer B inform
you that they need to be able to reach certain hosts on each other's network.
Which two configuration settings would be used to share routes between these routing instances?
(Choose two.)
A. routing-group
B. instance-import
C. import-rib
D. next-table
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
Reference :http://aconaway.com/2013/03/02/junos-logical-tunnel-interfaces-with-virtualrouters/

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
user@key-server> show security group-vpn server ike security-associations Index State Initiator
cookie Responder cookie Mode Remote Address 97 UP bb224408940cc5d 435b9404284083c2 Main
192.168.11.1 98 UP 242c840089404d15 ab19284089408ba8 Main 192.168.11.2
user@key-server> show security group-vpn server ipsec security-associations Group: group-1, Group
Id: 1 Total IPsec SAs: 1 IPsec SA Algorithm SPI Lifetime group-l-sa ESP:3des/shal 1343991c 2736
Group: group-2, Group id: 2 Total IPsec SAs: 1 IPsec SA Algorithm SPI Lifetime group-2-sa
ESP:3des/shal 13be9e9 2741 Group: group-3, Group Id: 3 Total IPsec SAs: 1 IPsec SA Algorithm SPI
Lifetime group-3-sa ESP:3des/shal 20709057 2741 Group: group-4, Group Id: 4 Total IPsec SAs: 1
IPsec SA Algorithm SPI Lifetime group-4-sa ESP:3des/shal 5111c2e1 2741
Which statement is correct regarding the outputs shown in the exhibit?
A. Two established peers are in the group VPNs.
B. One established peer is in the group VPNs.
C. No established peer is in the group VPNs.
D. Four established peers are in the group VPNs.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which AppSecure module provides Quality of Service?
A. AppTrack
B. AppFW
C. AppID
D. AppQoS
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
user@host# show interfaces
ge-0/0/0 {
unit 1 {
family bridge {
interface-mode trunk;
vlan-id-list 20;
vlan-rewrite {
translate 2 20;
}
}
}
}
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct regarding VLAN rewrite? (Choose two.)
A. An incoming packet with VLAN tag 20 will be translated to VLAN tag 2.
B. An outgoing packet with VLAN tag 2 will be translated to VLAN tag 20.
C. An incoming packet with VLAN tag 2 will be translated to VLAN tag 20.
D. An outgoing packet with VLAN tag 20 will be translated to VLAN tag 2.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your company has added a connection to a new ISP and you have been asked to send specific
traffic to the new ISP.
You have decided to implement filter-based forwarding. You have configured new routing instances
with type forwarding.
You must direct traffic into each instance.Which step would accomplish this goal?
A. Add a firewall filter to the ingress interface that specifies the intended routing instance as the
action.
B. Create a routing policy to direct the traffic to the required forwarding instances.
C. Configure the ingress and egress interfaces in each forwarding instance.
D. Create a static default route for each ISP in inet.0, each pointing to a different forwarding instance.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Reference :http://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB17223

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JN0-360 PDF VCE, JN0-343 Exam Cram

General Certification Policies

Introduction
The Juniper Networks Certification Program (JNCP) consists of platform-specific, multitiered tracks that include both written proficiency exams and hands-on configuration and troubleshooting exams. Successful candidates demonstrate a thorough understanding of Internet and security technologies and competence configuring and troubleshooting Juniper Networks platforms.

Provided here is current information on the JNCP policies and procedures to assist in your preparation for Juniper Networks Certification. Please review this document thoroughly to ensure your full understanding of the program. These policies and procedures will change on occasion. Significant changes will be announced to the certified audience on this web page and by e-mail to the e-mail address provided by you in your CertManager profile. It is important that you keep your contact information updated in CertManager in order for you to receive important updates to the program.

http://www.juniper.net/uk/en/training/certification/policies-exam/

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Exam Code: JN0-360

Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP)

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Exam Code: JN0-343

Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT)

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M2020-618:IBM Business Analytics Midmarket Foundational Sales Mastery Test v2

試験概要
M2020-618 IBM Business Analytics Midmarket Foundational Sales Mastery Test v2 の合格者は、IBM Business Analytics Midmarket Foundational Sales Professional v2 として認定されます。
PartnerWorld
Skill name: IBM Business Analytics Midmarket Foundational Sales Professional v2
PartnerWorld skill code: 32018014

出題項目
セクション 1 - The Market for Business Analytics Midmarket. (17%)
セクション 2 - Business Analytics Midmarket Solutions (7%)
セクション 3 - Prospecting for Business Analytics Midmarket sales (15%)
セクション 4 - Qualifying the Business Analytics Midmarket opportunity (17%)
セクション 5 - Quoting Business Analytics Midmarket (10%)
セクション 6- Selling Business Analytics Midmarket solutions (34%)

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NO.1 Typically, which of the following activities is done earliest in the formation of a project team?
A. Select the team
B. Identify the objective
C. Identify the sponsor
D. Allocate the resources
Answer: B

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NO.2 A process using a p-chart has pbar = 0.076 and nbar = 4.86. Find the control limits.
A. 0.069 and 0.083
B. 0.072 and 0.080
C. 0.040 and 0.112
D. 0.0756 and 0.0764
E. none of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 For a process, X= 35.0 and = 5.00. If the subgroup size is n = 5, what is the value for the upper
control limit for the process?
A. 37.24
B. 37.89
C. 41.71
D. 52.50
Answer: C

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NO.4 A six sigma team has gathered data for a project proposal and is using the following notations.
I = Initial investment
C = Periodic maintenance cost
B = Benefits to be accrued
On the basis of the information above, which of the following is the criteria used to select a project?
A. 0>+CIB
B. 1>+CIB
C. 1+CIB
D. 0+CIB
Answer: B

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NO.5 A medicine with efficacy of .52 is given to five patients. Find the approximate probability that at
least one of the patients is cured. (Hint: Use the binomial formula.)
A. .975
B. .480
C. .531
D. .416
E. none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 If the probability that an event will occur is 0.83, then the probability that the event will not
occur is:
A. 0.17
B. 0.07
C. 0.6889
D. 1.20
E. 83%
Answer: A

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NO.7 A quality leader who did extensive work with Japanese industry is:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Deming
D. Ohno
E. Taguchi
F. all of the above
G. none of the above
Answer: F

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NO.8 According to Deming, which of the following is NOT a key element of quality leadership?
A. Established organizational goals to meet or exceed customer needs
B. The use of displays and awards to promote employee motivation
C. Continual education and training that elevate the level of technical and professional expertise
D. Elimination of barriers and distrust to create an organizational culture that fosters teamwork
Answer: B

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IIA-CIA-Part1 Exam Prep, IIA-CIA-Part2 Exam Tests

NO.1 A chief audit executive would most likely use risk assessment for audit planning because it
provides:
A. A systematic process for assessing and integrating professional judgment about probable adverse
conditions.
B. A listing of potentially adverse effects on the organization.
C. A list of auditable activities in the organization.
D. The probability that an event or action may adversely affect the organization.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When developing an effective risk-based plan to determine audit priorities,an internal audit
activity should start by:
A. Identifying risks to the organization's operations.
B. Observing and analyzing controls.
C. Prioritizing known risks.
D. Reviewing organizational objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When a risk assessment process has been used to construct an audit engagement
schedule,which of the following should receive attention first?
A. The external auditors have requested assistance for their upcoming annual audit.
B. A new accounts payable system is currently undergoing testing by the information technology
department.
C. Management has requested an investigation of possible lapping in receivables.
D. The existing accounts payable system has not been audited over the past year.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A retail sales company has discontinued a product that normally sold for $100. During the first
month of a sale of the product,a 20 percent discount was given. Later that sale price was reduced by
an additional 40 percent. What was the overall discount from the original selling price?
A. 60 percent.
B. 52 percent.
C. 48 percent.
D. 30 percent.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following techniques would provide the most compelling evidence that a safety
hazard exists within a manufacturing facility?
A. Observation of the facility during operations.
B. Questioning of facility management,including the facility safety officer.
C. Analysis of facility operating reports,focusing on instances when breakdowns occurred.
D. Review of records involving safety violations,filed by facility production employees.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to exercise due professional
care?
1.Consider the probability of significant noncompliance in each audit engagement.
2.Weigh the cost of assurance against the benefits.
3.Perform assurance procedures with sufficient care to ensure that all risks are identified.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2,and 3
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is not a role of the internal audit activity in facilitating risk identification
and evaluation?
A. Evaluating risk management processes.
B. Recommending accountability for risk management.
C. Providing assurance that risks are evaluated correctly.
D. Supporting managers to identify ways to mitigate risks.
Answer: B

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NO.8 According to IIA guidance,which of the following statements about working papers is false?
A. They assist in the implementation of recommendations.
B. They provide support for communication to third parties.
C. They demonstrate compliance with auditing standards.
D. They contribute to development of the internal audit staff.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1

Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 1, The Internal Audit Activity's Role in Governance, Risk, and Control

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2

Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement

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PEGACPBA71V1 Real Dumps, PEGACDA71V1 Test Answers

NO.1 Which explorers can be used to view properties for a data object in your application? (Choose
two.)
A. Case Explorer
B. Data Explorer
C. Records Explorer
D. Application Explorer
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Civen this high-level view of a health assessment process:
-the patient is triaged by the receiving nurse and vital statistics are entered in the patient log -the
patient log and the patient are reviewed by the attending physician -ifnecessary, additional tests are
ordered -thediagnosis and treatment plan are established Which step should be implemented as a
subcase?
A. If necessary, additional tests are ordered
B. thediagnosis and treatment plan are established
C. the patient log and the patient are reviewed by the attending physician
D. the patient is triaged by the receiving nurse and vital statistics are entered in the patient log
Answer: B

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NO.3 When developing the initial entity relationship diagram, it is not necessary to document
standard case data such as _____, _____, and _____ as Pega 7 automatically creates and updates
these data elements for us. (Choose three.)
A. case resolution due data
B. case creation date
C. unique case ID
D. current case status
E. case creation reason
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which statement best describes how a service level affects the urgency value of an assignment
or a case?
A. If the current urgency value is less than the urgency specified inthe milestone, it is adjusted tothe
urgency value specified in that milestone - otherwise, it remains the same.
B. When a given milestone is reached, the urgency is set to the specified value in that milestone.
C. When a given milestone is reached, the current urgency is checked. If it is greater than the value
specified in that milestone, the assignment or case moves to the next milestone
D. When a given milestone is reached, the specified urgency is added to the current urgency value.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A _____________ rule allows us to set a property value automatically, whenever an input value
changes.
A. Declarative Network
B. Declare Expressions
C. Property
D. Data Transform
Answer: D

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NO.6 Review the following decision table.
If the credit score is 800 and the outstanding balance is 1000, what is the result of the decision?
A. Level3
B. Level1
C. Reject
D. Level2
Answer: D

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Exam Code: PEGACPBA71V1

Exam Name: Certified Pega Business Architect (CPBA) 71V1

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Exam Code: PEGACDA71V1

Exam Name: Certified DCO Architect V7.1

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ACMA-6.3 Exam Cost, ACMP-6.3 Latest Dumps, ACMP-6.4 Exam Tests

NO.1 Which of the following are NOT valid RAP forwarding modes (Choose two)?
A. Tunnel
B. Bridge
C. Split-Tunnel
D. Backup
E. Standard
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 What can an AM do that an AP cannot do?
A. Detect rogue APs
B. Detect an AP failure
C. Scans all channels in under 1 minute
D. Detect interfering APs
E. Scan all valid channels
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company purchased an indoor mesh deployment using the 7005 controller and the AP 115
models, where 5 APs will be deployed on a floor to provide wireless internet access for users. Users
may open VPN tunnels using software clients over the wireless network to a 3rd party VPN
concentrator overseas. The company wants to limit wireless user access to TCP traffic locally and VPN
traffic overseas.
In addition to the base AOS, which licenses will be necessary for this deployment?
A. VPN, PEF-NG
B. AP Capacity, PEF-NG
C. AP Capacity, PEF-NG, VPN
D. AP Capacity
E. PEF-NG, PEF-V
Answer: B

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Explanation:
7-4 - Location

NO.4 What is the blacklist default time?
A. 30 seconds
B. 1800 seconds
C. 3600 seconds
D. No default time, it must be done manually
E. 1 day
Answer: C

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Explanation:
2-2 - Roles

NO.5 A Remote AP was properly functioning before losing its internet connection and now cannot
communicate with the controller. What SSID is the AP broadcasting?
A. The SSID in Operational mode Always and Forwarding mode Backup
B. The SSID in Operational mode Split Tunnel and Forwarding mode Bridge
C. The SSID in Operational mode Always and Forwarding mode Tunnel
D. The SSID in Operational mode Standard and Forwarding mode Tunnel
E. The SSID in Operational mode Persistent and Forwarding mode Bridge
Answer: E

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NO.6 A university, has 2 departments. Department 1 has its own mobility domain with one controller.
Department 2 has multiple controllers configured in a second domain. The university is planning on
offering a new application and needs users to be able to roam between both mobility domains.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. The 2 existing domains should be left as they are. A 3rd mobility domain should then be created
and all 3 controllers need to be added to it
B. Merge the controllers into the same mobility domain
C. The IP subnets of all controllers need to be configured to match
D. This cannot be accomplished
E. Create a new domain between a department 1 controller and one of the department 2 controllers
Answer: B

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Explanation:
4-11 - Wired Access Control In the above diagram, the system shows two Aruba access points and a
wired user.

NO.7 Which of the following is an Aruba Layer 3 redundancy mechanism?(Choose two)
A. HA
B. Backup LMS-IP
C. VRRP
D. Backup AP group
E. ARM
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following describes a Remote AP provisioned in "Split-Tunnel" Forwarding mode?.
A. Local user traffic first goes to the controller and is then spilt back to the local network.
B. All data and control traffic goes to the controller unsecured.
C. The user role must have a "Permit" statement in order to locally bridge the traffic.
D. The user role must have a "route src-nat" statement to locally bridge the traffic.
E. The RAP uses PAPI to send data traffic to the controller.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Associate 6.3

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Exam Code: ACMP-6.4

Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.4

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Exam Code: 9A0-385

Exam Name: Adobe Experience Manager 6.0 Architect Exam

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NO.1 AEM installs default groups and users.
Which two concepts should the architect know about the admin, anonymous, and author users?
(Choose two.)
A. Keep all three users as default
B. All default accounts should be deleted.
C. Modifying the anonymous account creates additional security implications.
D. Change the password for the admin account from the default.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Reference:
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NO.2 An architect is conducting a discovery on a client's current CMS implementation.
The architect must identify which functionality is missing from the client's current implementation.
What should the architect do?
A. Use documentation provided by the client
B. Speak to the key stakeholders about how to use the system
C. Speak to the IT department about how the system is built
D. Gain access to the system and review code
Answer: B

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NO.3 A client's security team needs protection from repository content modification outside of its
network on its publish servers.
What provides the LEAST protection against this specific threat?
A. Disabling Sling POST Servlet and WebDAV functionality
B. Using Dispatcher filter rules to block access to /apps and /libs
C. Enforcing very strong passwords on all systems and using SSL
D. White-listing specific HTTP methods and URIs required for application functionality
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two business requirements can be achieved by using OOTB AEM components? (Choose
two.)
A. A store details page displays an embedded map from Bing Maps.
B. A sidebar contains a list of PDF files tagged with the "Product Data Sheet" tag.
C. An article can be composed of an arbitrary combination of text, videos, and images.
D. An article has a Facebook Like button; the number of clicks are stored in Adobe Social.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 An architect is integrating a customer's AEM authoring system to authenticate with the
company's Active Directory (AD) directory service. The architect must configure the LoginModule
used by the identity provider.
Which Java security framework should the architect use?
A. OWASP
B. PAM
C. JAAS
D. Apache Shiro
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Reference:
http://docs.adobe.com/docs/en/dispatcher/disp-config.html

NO.6 A small public sector organization needs helps planning the architectural design of its AEM
system. The reorganization's few staff members resist learning new technologies.
What is the most important factor for the architect to consider while planning the system design?
A. Performance
B. Usability
C. High Availability
D. Extensibility
E. Low Maintenance
Answer: D

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C_TSCM52_66 Exam Questions, C_TBW45_70 Exam Questions

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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_66

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6

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Exam Code: C_TBW45_70

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Business Intelligence with SAP NetWeaver 7.0

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認定試験
SAP CERTIFIED APPLICATION ASSOCIATE – BUSINESS INTELLIGENCE
WITH SAP NETWEAVER 7.0
試験科目コード:C_TBW45_70
この試験は、SAP NetWeaver Business Intelligenceコンサルタントのために SAP NetWeaver Business
Intelligencソリューション領域の知識を証明するものです。この認定資格は、BIコンサルタントが習得し、可能であればBIチーム内での実践的な経験により磨枯れた基礎的な知識を前提としており、BIコンサルタントはこの専門分野における知識をプロジェクトにおいて実践的に導入することができます。
ソフトウェアコンポーネント
SAP NetWeaver 7.0

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MB6-703 Real Dumps, MB2-703 Latest Dumps, 70-488 Practice Test

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Exam Code: MB6-703

Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R3 Trade and Logistics

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Exam Code: MB2-703

Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Customization and Configuration

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Exam Code: 70-488

Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions

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試験 MB2-703
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Customization and Configuration

測定するスキル
この試験では、次の一覧に示す技術タスクを遂行する能力を測定します。 パーセンテージは、試験の各主要トピック領域の相対的な重みを示します。 パーセンテージが高いほど、試験でこのコンテンツ領域に関する質問の数が多くなる可能性があります。
ソリューションの作成およびカスタマイズ (10 ～ 15%)
エンティティとエンティティ関係のカスタマイズ (10 ～ 15%)
フィールドのカスタマイズ (10 ～ 15%)
フォームの管理 (10 ～ 15%)
ビューの管理 (10 ～ 15%)
グラフとダッシュボードの作成およびカスタマイズ (10 ～ 15%)
セキュリティの管理 (10 ～ 15%)
ビジネス プロセスとルールの管理 (10 ～ 15%)

この試験を受ける必要がある人
この試験は、Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 のカスタマイズおよび構成を計画している個人を対象としています。 一般に、実装コンサルタントが対象となります。
受験者は、Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 の特長や機能の実装および使用方法に関する一般的な実務知識を有していることが推奨されます。

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70-480 Exam Questions, 070-534 Study Guide

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Exam Code: 70-480

Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

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Exam Code: 070-534

Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions

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Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions (beta)

Exam 70-533
Objectives:
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Azure
Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Specialist

Design Microsoft Azure infrastructure and networking (15–20%)

Secure resources (15–20%)

Design an application storage and data access strategy (15–20%)

Design an advanced application (15–20%)

Design websites (15–20%)

Design a management, monitoring, and business continuity strategy (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is for candidates who are interested in validating their Microsoft Azure solution design skills. Candidates should know the features and capabilities of Azure services to be able to identify tradeoffs and make decisions for designing public and hybrid cloud solutions. Candidates who take this exam are expected to be able to define the appropriate infrastructure and platform solutions to meet the required functional, operational, and deployment requirements through the solution lifecycle.

Exam 70-532: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions and Exam 70-533: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions are useful for candidates who want to validate their implementation experience across cloud projects, but they are not prerequisites for this exam.

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102-400 Training online, 304-150 Exam Cost

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Exam Code: 102-400

Exam Name: LPI Level 1 Exam 102, Junior Level Linux Certification, Part 2 of 2

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Exam Code: 304-150

Exam Name: LPI Level 3 Exam 304, Senior Level Linux Certification, Virtualization & High Availability

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LPIC-2 Exam 201
LPIC-2 is a professional certification program program that covers administering small to medium–sized mixed Linux networks.

Exam Objectives Version: Version 4.0 (last major update: November 1st, 2013, last minor formatting update: December 4th, 2014)

Exam Covered: LPIC-2 (LPI-102); Exam 1 of 2 to obtain LPIC-2 Linux Network Professional certification

Objectives Reflected in Published Exam: November 1st, 2013

Required Prerequisite: Successfully pass LPIC-1 101 and 102 exams

About Objective Weights: Each objective is assigned a weighting value. The weights range roughly from 1 to 10 and indicate the relative importance of each objective. Objectives with higher weights will be covered in the exam with more questio

To pass LPIC-2, you should be able to:

Administer a small to medium-sized site
Plan, implement, maintain, keep consistent, secure, and troubleshoot a small mixed (MS, Linux) network, including a:
LAN server (Samba, NFS, DNS, DHCP, client management)
Internet Gateway (firewall, VPN, SSH, web cache/proxy, mail)
Internet Server (web server and reverse proxy, FTP server)
Supervise assistants
Advise management on automation and purchasesns.

Certification can help you:

Stay motivated to learn new skills
Prove you have top job skills
Stand out during the hiring process
Earn promotions and raises

Certification can help you achieve your IT goals, no matter what they might be.

Helping you:

Show you are up to date on the latest changes in your industry
Feel confident to troubleshoot problems without outside help
Quantify your IT and Linux knowledge
Get a job that offers great pay and better perks

JN0-360 Practice Test, JN0-633 VCE Dumps, JN0-343 VCE Dumps

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Exam Code: JN0-360

Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP)

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Exam Code: JN0-633

Exam Name: Security, Professional (JNCIP-SEC) Exam

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Exam Code: JN0-343

Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT)

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NO.1 Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix?
A. per-flow load balancing
B. a floating static route
C. per-packet load balancing
D. a qualified next hop
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Junos command correctly configures the ge-0/0/0.0 interface to operate only for IS-IS Level 2?
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 2 enable
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 1 disable
C. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 2 enable
D. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 1 disable
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two of the following are functions of the BGP update message? (Choose two.)
A. It withdraws routes that are no longer valid.
B. It notes that an unsupported option is detected from the open message.
C. It transports routing information between BGP peers.
D. It readvertises routes that have already been sent and acknowledged.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 When loop protection is enabled on an interface, what happens when the port stops receiving BPDUs?
A. The port is placed in a loop-inconsistent role.
B. The port is placed into listening mode.
C. The port is transitioned into a forwarding state.
D. The interface is disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which protocol is an IGP?
A. LACP
B. STP
C. OSPF
D. PAGP
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following can be used for both security and loop prevention?
A. firewall filters
B. DHCP snooping
C. dynamic ARP inspection D. MAC move limiting
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two valid BPDU types? (Choose two.)
A. topology change notification
B. configuration change
C. configuration
D. root bridge
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet?
A. 24 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 48 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Answer: A

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